A 42-year-old man presents severe crushing retrosternal
chest pain radiating to his left arm and into his neck. There is no
significant past illnesses but he admitted to snorting cocaine prior to the
onset of the pain.
On examination you note the patientís skin is cold and
clammy , his pulse rate is 110 beats per minute , BP 100/60 JVP not elevated ,
heart sounds normal no murmurs , lungs are clear.
ECG shows ST segment elevation in the anterior chest leads.
In this patient which one of the following methods of
treatment would you institute?
Percutaneous coronary intervention
Low molecular weight heparin
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibition