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 BOF 27

 

   

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BOF: 27

A 72-year-old man with colonic adenocarcinoma treated with surgical resection and local radiotherapy (8 weeks ago) is admitted unwell with fever, headaches preceded by “flu” like illness. His GCS on admission is 9/15 and BP is 110/70. You consider the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. Which one of the following management regimens would you consider to be the most optimal empiric regimen based on current evidence?

a)      Intravenous ceftazidime and vancomycin with dexamethasone

b)      Intravenous Ceftriaxone and high dose amoxycillin with dexamethasone

c)      Intravenous Ceftriaxone without dexamethasone

d)      Intravenous acyclovir, high dose amoxycillin and intravenous ceftazidime without dexamethasone

e)      Intravenous Cefuroxime and vancomycin with dexamethasone

 

 

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