A 63 year old obese female presented
to her GP with a complaint of pain in both knees. The GP treated her with
paracetamol and NSAIDs.
One month later she was reviewed and
noted to have swelling of both ankles. Her BP was 150/100; no other
abnormalities were detected clinically
In this patient which of the following
lines of action would you adopt?
Treat the patient with high dose steroids
Arrange a renal biopsy
Arrange a MR angiogram
Discontinue NSAID and review
Arrange an IVU